Suppose that X, Y, and Z are random variables and that X and Y are positively correlated and that Y and Z are likewise positively correlated. Does it follow that X and Z must be positively correlated? As we shall see by example, the answer is (perhaps surprisingly) “no.” We prove, though, that if the correlations are sufficiently close to 1, thenX and Z must be positively correlated. We also prove a general inequality that relates the three correlations. The ideas should be accessible to students in a first (postcalculus) course in probability and statistics.
No takes yet. Share an insight, caveat, or question.
Langford et al. (2001) studied this question.
Synapse has enriched one closely related paper. Consider it for comparative context: