Suppose each permutation (πl,…,πn) of ( 1, …,n) has probability 1/n!. The oscillation of (πl; …, πn) is defined asTn= | πk− πk+1|, where πn+1= π1. It is proved that (Tn−ETn)/(varTn)1/2converges in distribution toN(0,1). The connection between the oscillation and the presortedness measure is also discussed.
No takes yet. Share an insight, caveat, or question.
Chao et al. (1993) studied this question.
Synapse has enriched 2 closely related papers on similar clinical questions. Consider them for comparative context: