Why does Planck (1900), referring to Boltzmann’s 1877 probabilistic treatment, obtain his quantum distribution function while Boltzmann did not? To answer this question, both treatments are compared on the basis of Boltzmann’s 1868 three-level scheme (configuration—occupation—occupancy). Some calculations by Planck (1900, 1901, and 1913) and Einstein (1907) are also sketched. For obtaining a quantum distribution, it is crucial to stick with a discrete energy spectrum and to make the limit transitions to infinity at the right place. For correct state counting, the concept of interchangeability of particles is superior to that of indistinguishability.
No takes yet. Share an insight, caveat, or question.
P. Enders (2016) studied this question.
Synapse has enriched 5 related papers. Consider them for comparative context: